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“He who has ears to hear”, what does this mean exactly? Why does Jesus if he is quoting the OT passage not bother even on one occasion with the counter position as did Ezekiel’s account which includes he who refuses, let him refuse What does this expression convey? Who indeed has ears to hear and can hear therefore? What is the Meaning and Origin of the Eyes that See, Ears that Hear . . . 'Whoever has ears to hear, let them hear '" My question is two-fold: Meaning: What are the intended meanings or implications behind this metaphor in these contexts? Origin: Is this metaphor unique to the Judeo-Christian tradition, or does it have earlier origins or parallels in other ancient texts or cultures? contradiction - What does it mean that the least in the kingdom of . . . For all the Prophets and the Law prophesied until John, and if you are willing to accept it, he is Elijah who is to come He who has ears to hear, let him hear —Matthew 11:11-15 (ESV) There's a lot going on here and I can't address it all What is meant in Matthew 11:14? This is Elias? Whenever Jesus said "Whoever has ears, let them hear", the message afore that contains hidden meaning The sentence "if you are willing to accept it" is notable According to Mark 4:11-12, Luke 8:10 and Matthew 13:11-15 why did . . . ESV (Mark 4:11-12) 11And he said to them, “To you has been given the secret of the kingdom of God, but for those outside everything is in parables, 12 so that “they may indeed see but not perceive, and may indeed hear but not understand, lest they should turn and be forgiven ” matthew - Is there a contradiction between the purpose of parables . . . The Command to Hear (v 9): Immediately after the Parable of the Sower, He says, "He who has ears, let him hear," implying that hearing and understanding are possible and required The Blessing of Perception (v 16): He then tells the disciples, "But blessed are your eyes, for they see, and your ears, for they hear " Are Malachi 3:1 and 4:5 talking about different events? In fact, he even denied that he was Elijah (John 1:21) Nor did he succeed in "turning the hearts of the fathers to the children" etc as Malachi predicted Crucially, John did not present Jesus with "a people prepared" but went his own way after baptizing him and died in doubt, asking him "are you the one to come?" (Matthew 11:3) What was the deeper meaning of Mark 8:18? Do you think Jesus was only talking about physical eyes and ears only? Jesus said 7 times in Revelation 2 3 "He that hath ear, let him hear what the Spirit sayeth to the churches Obviously Jesus' words were spirit and truth Much more than just the physical He said to Nicademus how can I teach you the spiritual when you don't yet understand the fleshy ( physical ) matthew - Why does Jesus compare the righteous to the sun in the . . . 1 Matthew 13:43 (KJV): "Then shall the righteous shine forth as the sun in the kingdom of their Father Who hath ears to hear, let him hear " What does it mean to shine like the sun in the context of God's Kingdom? What does John 12:40 mean? - Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange The Text John 12:40 literally reads: [He] has blinded their eyes and hardened their heart, in order that they would not see with their eyes and understand with their heart, and turn, and I would heal them A parallel passage also exists in Matthew 13:14-15 Slight manuscript variance exists, but the variant readings have little significance for translation in this passage (since textual

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